P6040-009 Certification Dumps

IBM

P6040-009

IBM SurePOS 300 Models 330 and 33H Technical Mastery Test

Question: 1

Which three groups is PartnerWorld targeted to?  

A. Resellers 

B. Customers 

C. Integrators 

D. OEM vendors 

E. Hardware developers

F. Independent Software Vendors (ISVs)  

Answer: A, C, F

Question: 2

What industry standard expansion capability is found on the SurePOS 300 Models 330 and 33H?  

A. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) Express slot 

B. Full-size Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)slot 

C. Peripheral Component Interconnect Extended(PCI-X) slot 

D. Half-size Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot  

Answer: D

Question: 3

What is the standard hard drive type used in the SurePOS 300 Model 33H?  

A. A single 3.5" SCSI Hard Drive 

B. A single 3.5" IDE Hard Drive 

C. A single 2.5" (laptop size) IDE Hard Drive 

D. A single 3.5" Serial ATA (SATA) Hard Drive  

Answer: D

Question: 4

When removing the CD-ROM drive from the system unit, in which order should the removal steps be performed?  

A. 1. While pulling the tab on the side of the CD-ROM bracket outward, pull the bracket away from the CD-ROM. 2. Open the unit. 3. Disconnect the power and signal cables from the CD-ROM drive. 4. While pressing the blue latch toward the CD-ROM, lift out the 

B. 1. Open the unit. 2. Disconnect the power and signal cables from the CD-ROM drive. 3. While pressing the blue latch toward the CD-ROM, lift out the CD-ROM with bracket. 4. While pulling the tab on the side of the CD-ROM bracket outward, pull the bracket a 

C. 1. Open the unit. 2. Disconnect the power and signal cables from the CD-ROM drive. 3. While pulling the tab on the side of the CD-ROM bracket outward, pull the bracket away from the CD-ROM. 4. While pressing the blue latch toward the CD-ROM, lift out the 

D. 1. Disconnect the power and signal cables from the CD-ROM drive. 2. Open the unit. 3. While pressing the blue latch toward the CD-ROM, lift out the CD-ROM with bracket. 4. While pulling the tab on the side of the CD-ROM bracket outward, pull the bracket a 

Answer: B

Question: 5

How often should the SurePOS 300 ventilation fan on the rear panel be cleaned/vacuumed?  

A. Once a year 

B. Twice a year 

C. Every 6 months 

D. Every time the unit is serviced  

Answer: B

Question: 6

Which step describes the first recommended action that should be taken to gain access to the system components?  

A. Unplug the power cord 

B. Slide the top cover back, then lift it up 

C. Remove the two screws at the top of the back of the unit 

D. Loosen the thumb screw which holds the power supply in place 

Answer: A

Question: 7

A problem with the system can be caused by a software error or a hardware failure. Which of the following best describes the first step in performing the Preliminary Checklist?  

A. Verify that a supported operating system has been installed properly. 

B. Verify that all the I/O devices are connected securely to the system unit. 

C. Insure that the AC power is connected to the system unit and that all the power lights are on. 

D. Make sure that all the I/O devices are connected to an operating AC outlet and that all the devices are powered on.  

Answer: C

P4070-005 Exam Course

IBM

P4070-005

IBM System z and zOS Fundamentals Mastery

Question: 1

Many companies have very large groups of physical servers in a central location. Which of the following describes those large groups of servers? 

A. IBM mainframes

B. Remote distributed processing

C. zBX

D. Server farms 

Answer: D

Question: 2

Which of the following is the most common business application mainframe workload? 

A. Batch and online transaction processing

B. Printing and distribution processing

C. Backup and archiving processing

D. Restoration and recovery processing 

Answer: A

Question: 3

In addition to the z/OS and z/VM operating systems, which of the following operating systems run on IBM System z excluding zBX? 

A. Windows, Linux on z, z/TPF

B. AIX, z/VSE, Linux on z

C. Windows , Linux on z, AIX

D. z/VSE, Linux on z, z/TPF 

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON channels? 

A. ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower

B. ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections

C. ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels

D. FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels  

Answer: D

Question: 5

IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL). Which of the following accurately describes a function of one of these specialty processors? 

A. zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.

B. IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM

C. zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first

D. SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite 

Answer: B

Question: 6

Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility? 

A. CTC ring

B. Shared DASD

C. Parallel Sysplex

D. zAAP 

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which of the following can identify a base software component? 

A. Message format

B. Software update list

C. System log routing table descriptor

D. Three characters in message identifier 

Answer: D

Question: 8

A system z architecture has two kinds of physical storage. There is central storage and auxiliary storage. Access to central storage is _________. 

A. multi-synchronous

B. asychronous

C. synchronous

D. duplexed 

Answer: C

Question: 9

The range of virtual addresses that z/OS can assign to a user or separately running program is called a(n) ___________ space. 

A. Virtual

B. Physical

C. Address

D. Mapping 

Answer: C

Question: 10

The subset of an address space’s pages in central storage at a given time is known as the ________. 

A. Virtual set

B. Address set

C. Working set

D. Central set 

Answer: C

P2180-023 Study Materials

IBM

P2180-023

IBM PureApplication System Technical Sales Mastery Test v1

Question: 1

What are available administrations interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.) 

A. Web Console

B. Command line tool

C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs

D. Eclipse based plug-in 

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 2

The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.) 

A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console

B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support

C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE

D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system 

Answer: B,C

Question: 3

When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process? 

A. cbscript.json

B. config.sh

C. virtualimage.properties

D. appmodel.json 

Answer: A

Question: 4

The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with IBM PureApplication System, does one of the following: 

A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages between components

B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD

C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the pattern D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern 

Answer: D

Question: 5

A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different scenarios: 1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable 2.Production - where workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a scaling policy to dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM PureApplication System to accomplish this task? 

A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one

B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual application C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and policies accordingly

D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the production scenario 

Answer: C

Question: 6

Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor. What can you deduce from it?  (Choose three.)

A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted

B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order

C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint

D. The DB2 part has to start first 

Answer: A, B, D

Question: 7

Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine tuning for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been implemented modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the following is NOT true? 

A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor

B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time

C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages

D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own 

Answer: D

P2170-035 Certification Study Material

IBM

P2170-035

IBM i2 Analyst Notebook Support Mastery Test v1

Question: 1

Which one of these can be used to draw attention to key entities and to distinguish groups of entities? 

A. Window boxes

B. Icon frames

C. Event frames

D. Theme lines 

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which of the following best describes IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook? 

A. it is a standalone desktop product

B. it is designed to provide users with a powerful visualization and analytical tool

C. it combines both network and timeline analytical capabilities

D. All of the above 

Answer: D

Question: 3

With an existing chart open and using the Task Pane, Filters and histogram Tab - Which statement is false? 

A. Available filters are displayed automatically in the New page

B. If filters are automatically displayed, then they are based on the contents of your chart.

C. To see all possible filters, turn on the Show All Filters check box at the bottom of the New page

D. To see what filters are currently applied, select Chart Properties 

Answer: D

Question: 4

Using the Task Pane, Import Data tab, which of the options will allow you to rerun a previous import when you already have a specification & without prompting for the source data? 

A. Import with Selected Specification

B. Import with selected Specification and Last File

C. Edit Selected Specification

D. Have another go for free 

Answer: B

P2170-015 Certification Test

IBM

P2170-015

IBM IOC Intelligent Water Technical Mastery Test v1

Question: 1

How is the "Seasonal Usage" ratio calculated? 

A. Summer Usage / Winter Usage

B. Winter Usage / Summer Usage

C. Summer Usage / Overall Usage

D. Winter Usage / Overall Usage 

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Work Optimization component provides value? 

A. Optimizing work crew schedules

B. Detecting water usage patterns

C. Using crews more efficiently

D. Decreasing transport costs 

Answer: B

Question: 3

What are the kinds of external systems that WIH (Water Information Hub) can ingest data from? 

A. SCADA systems only

B. Meter systems only

C. SCADA systems, Meter systems, EAM systems

D. None of the above 

Answer: C

Question: 4

What asset is NOT used to support IW v1? 

A. Water Information Hub

B. Leak Management Hub

C. Non Revenue Water

D. Meter Usage Anomaly 

Answer: B

Question: 5

How many points of variability are called on in the WIH (Water Information Hub) programming model? 

A. 7

B. 5

C. 6

D. 1 

Answer: A

P2090-080 Exam Course

IBM

P2090-080

IBM ISW-9.7 & Smart Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1

Question: 1

Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?  

A. New SAP implementation 

B. Existing DB2 9 customers 

C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse 

D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver reports  

Answer: A

Question: 2

A customer is planning a very large Data Warehouse (size = +5 TB, access by at least 200 simultaneous users). What is the best InfoSphere Warehouse system configuration to recommend to the customer?   

A. Database and Application Servers on one system; Clients on many systems 

B. Database and Application Servers on separate systems; Clients on many systems 

C. Database and Application Servers and Client on one system 

D. Database Server on one system; Application Server and Client on another system  

Answer: B

Question: 3

A customer is planning to create a small InfoSphere Warehouse and does not want to install Data/Text Mining or Cubing Services. How can this be done?  

A. Obtain a different license key that disables these features. 

B. Manually modify the script used by the installation launch pad. 

C. Deselect the features during the installation process. 

D. It's not possible to exclude these features if they are available in the edition the customer has purchased.  

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which two InfoSphere Warehouse components can be installed in one pass of the installation launch  pad?  

A. Client and Database Server 

B. Client and Application Server 

C. Database Server and Application Server 

D. All components must be installed using separate passes of the installation launch pad.  

Answer: C

P2090-075 Exam Questions

IBM

P2090-075

IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test v1

Question: 1

Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to trigger a  real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?  

A. The Real Time Communications Framework 

B. The Change Audit System 

C. The Policy Engine 

D. The Live Report Builder  

Answer: C

Question: 2

What is Guardium's primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?  

A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP). 

B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored locally on the  data server in _ flat files. 

C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database. 

D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the collector.  

Answer: C

Question: 3

In a Guardium environment where data servers can talk to the collector, what is the relationship  between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?  

A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium entities. 

B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing. 

C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing. 

D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to intercept.  

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium environment?  

A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from multiple collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise. 

B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes. 

C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy Manager to communicate and is required in multi-collector environments. 

D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager.  

Answer: A